Thursday, April 24, 2014

What is the inverse of f(x)=3x+1

The inverse of the function f(x) is
f^-1(x).


To prove that f(x) is invertible, we'll have to
prove first that f(x) is bijective.


To prove that f(x) is
bijective, we'll have to prove that is one-to-one and on-to
function.


1) One-to-one
function.


We'll suppose that f(x1) =
f(x2)


We'll substitute f(x1) and f(x2) by their
expressions:


3x1 + 1= 3x2 +
1


We'll eliminate like
terms:


3x1 = 3x2


We'll divide
by 3:


x1 = x2


A function is
one-to-one if and only if for x1 = x2 => f(x1) =
f(x2).


2) On-to function:


For
a real y, we'll have to prove that it exists a real x.


y =
3x + 1


We'll isolate x to one side. For this reason, we'll
add -1 both side:


y - 1 =
3x


We'll use the symmetric
property:


3x = y - 1


We'll
divide by 3:


x = (y - 1)/3


x
is a real number.


From 1) and 2) we conclude that f(x) is
bijective.


If f(x) is bijective => f(x) is
invertible.


f^-1(x) = (x -
1)/3

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